Thursday, June 6, 2002


When a Master collars a slave, is he entitled to her posessions?

Update [06/07/2002 @ 07:39]:

I think that if the Master and slave have negotiated with each other the disposition of posessions, then yes, the Master is likely entitled to whatever was agreed upon. I know that I have met couples who do this and seem happy with it. These same couples fall into two categories. The first category has something like a "prenuptial" agreement where it is laid out legally what the slave will receive if the relationship with the Master ends. The other has no such agreement.

If I were to enter into a Master/slave relationship (which is unlikely) I would insist upon the safety net of the agreement.

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